In a previous article we discussed the return of Jesus, mentioned in John 14:28, when Jesus said, "You heard that I said to you, ′I am going away and I am coming back to you.′ If you loved me, you would rejoice that I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I am." Jesus referred to this event in Matthew 24:3 "While he was sitting on the Mount of Olives, the disciples approached him privately, saying: ′Tell us, when will these things be, and what will be the sign of your presence and of the conclusion of the system of things?′"

The American Standard Version says it this way, "And as he sat on the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, ′Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?′"

Did you notice the difference?

The New World Translation says, "The sign of your presence," while the American Standard Version says, "The sign of your coming," but note that other translations also use "presence".

Translations differ with their use of "presence" versus "coming". For instance, the King James version uses "coming", but Rotherham’s uses "presence". Is this significant? Yes! "Presence" tells us that Jesus has already arrived, and the signs he gives indicate that he is already here for the second time. "Coming" would indicate something in the future, not the present. So, which is correct?

This is another occasion when we must examine the original Greek word to accurately understand what Jesus said. The word used is "parousias" (παρουσιας). That word is also used in Philippians, 2:12, "Consequently, my beloved ones, just as you have always obeyed, not only during my presence but now much more readily during my absence, keep working out your own salvation with fear and trembling." The word used for "presence" here is "parousia", but note that the author used the word to contrast with "absence" (apousia, απουσια), its opposite in meaning. Paul is obviously contrasting opposites: presence with absence, so there can be no doubt about what he meant.

In Matthew, 24:36-39 Jesus uses this word twice, both times in reference to ongoing events during his "parousia". Due to the fact that he refers to actions that are taking place in society during an extended period of time, it can only mean he is actually present during that time. Jesus said, "For just as the days of Noah were, so the presence (parousia) of the Son of man will be. For as they were in those days before the Flood, eating and drinking, men marrying and women being given in marriage, until the day that Noah entered into the ark, and they took no note until the Flood came and swept them all away, so the presence (parousia) of the Son of man will be."

Note that Jesus said, "as they were in those days". That was an extended period of time of 120 years with Noah present for all of it, rather than an isolated event at the end of those years. Clearly, by making this comparison, Jesus was saying he would be present before this concluding event just as Noah was present before the destruction of his world.

The greek word for "coming" is "erxomenon" (ερχομενον), and Jesus used that word in verse 30 of Matthew chapter 24. Once again there is a distinct contrast drawn between "coming" and "presence" by Jesus himself. Please compare verses 3 and 30, while keeping in mind that the question Jesus was asked (in verse 3) was, "Tell us, when will these things be, and what will be the sign of your presence and of the conclusion of the system of things?". Those are two events.

In verses 4-29 he identifies several signs indicating his presence during the period of time leading up to the cleansing of the earth, then in verse 30 describes something else, "Then the sign of the Son of man will appear in heaven, and all the tribes of the earth will beat themselves in grief, and they will see the Son of man coming on the clouds of heaven with power and great glory."

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